The first level objectives of the programme are to:
- give a clear instruction in the signs and symptoms associated with each clinical area (e.g. papilloedema, diplopia etc.)
- provide an outline of relevant clinical investigations
- provide guidance on differential diagnosis
- provide information to enable the correct management of such patients in community pratice
| Course Number: C-11453/O | Closing Date: 29 October 2009 |
| CET points: 1.5 |
Target Audience: Optometrists |
Please note: your CETOptics account will be updated within 10 working days of the closing date.
Your CET User Code Prefix is the first part of your GOC number; therefore if your GOC number is 01-1234 you would put
01 in the CET User Code Prefix field and 1234 in the GOC Number field.
UPON SUCCESSFUL COMPLETION OF THE MCQS YOU SHOULD RECEIVE AN EMAIL FROM DOCET CONFIRMING THAT YOUR
DETAILS HAVE BEEN RECORDED. IT IS A REQUIREMENT OF THE COMPULSORY CET SCHEME THAT YOU KEEP A COPY OF THIS
EMAIL; IF FOR SOME REASON THE CET POINT IS NOT ALLOCATED TO YOUR CETOPTICES ACCOUNT WE CANNOT RECTIFY THIS
WITHOUT IT. IF YOU EXPERIENCE ANY PROBLEMS PLEASE EMAIL DOCET
The multiple choice questions for this project have now closed. The correct answers are highlighted in bold below.
1. Which of the following statements about the enlarged blind spot is correct?
a) Enlargement of the blind spot almost always means there is optic disc pathology
b) Enlargement of the blind spot almost always is a result of optic disc swelling
c) Enlargement of the blind spot almost always is a result of peripapillary atrophy
d) Enlargement of the blind spot almost always is a result of ischemic optic neuropathy
2. Which of the following is consistent with a post-chiasmal lesion?
a) Respect of the horizontal meridian
b) Respect of the vertical meridian
c) Ophthalmic disease
d) An RAPD
3. What degree of urgency should be attached to a patient presenting with neurological field defect that respects the horizontal midline?
a) Same day
b) Within a week
c) Routine referral
d) No referral
4. Which of the following statements about afferent pupil defects is correct?
a) The RAPD is linked to VA differences in the eyes
b) Detection should be done in reasonably bright room lighting
c) They can be associated with pre-retinal disease
d) They are not associated with chiasmal lesions
5. Which of the following is NOT consistent with an efferent pupil defect?
a) They are normally associated with anisochoria
b) They can be caused by sympathetic or parasympathetic abnormalities
c) There will always be ophthalmoplegia
d) Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres form part of the third cranial nerve
6. Which of the following should be referred via the GP to be seen within one week?
a) A previously undiscovered RAPD
b) A Horner's syndrome with pain
c) A tonic pupil with symptoms
d) A pupil anomaly with a third nerve palsy
7. Which right eye muscle has its primary action when the eyes are depressed and gazing to the left?
a) Left inferior oblique
b) Right inferior rectus
c) Right superior oblique
d) Left lateral rectus
8. Which of the following is NOT found in trivial oculomotor abnormalities in children?
a) Diplopia
b) Suppression
c) Concomitancy
d) A "V" pattern
9. Which of the following would make an oculomotor abnormality in an adult more worrying?
a) Accomodative spasm
b) Concomitance
c) Diplopia when fatigued
d) A head tilt
10. Which of the following is NOT a sign of supra-nuclear disease?
a) Ptosis
b) Gaze palsy
c) Nystagmus
d) Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)
11. Which of the following types of headache should cause more concern?
a) Cluster
b) Crescendo
c) Migraine
d) Tension
12. Which of the following statements about papilloedema is correct?
a) In most cases the patient will have visual symptoms
b) Haemorrhages and cotton wool spots represent end stage papilloedema
c) White spots on the optic nerve head indicate early papilloedema
d) “Vintage” papilloedema occurs one stage before atrophic papilloedema
